Fire Exam Prep I & II 6th Ed. Audit Quiz

Question 1 of 50

What is the average number of fire service line-of-duty deaths per year?
  250
  100
  150
  200

Question 2 of 50

Which term best matches the definition "Doing the right thing even though you don't have to"?
  Pride
  Character
  Integrity
  Morality

Question 3 of 50

What is the term for a legal entity that establishes a fire service agency to protect its citizens and determines its organization and structure?
  Authority having jurisdiction
  Chief fire official
  Local emergency response committee
  Fire protection district

Question 4 of 50

What is the term for an operational unit composed of an officer, a driver/operator, and at least one firefighter/EMT?
  Company
  Group
  Squad
  Engine

Question 5 of 50

Where do the majority of firefighter injuries occur?
  In response vehicles
  In or around the firehouse
  At non-fire emergencies
  At the fireground

Question 6 of 50

Which organization developed the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives?
  Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF)
  National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
  International Association of Firefighters (IAFF)

Question 7 of 50

Which item meets the DOT requirements for visibility for personnel working a vehicle accident?
  Turnouts with reflective stripes
  High-visibility safety vests
  Any PPE with reflective stripes
  All of the above

Question 8 of 50

The staging area is located in which control zone?
  Limited access
  Cold
  Hot
  Warm

Question 9 of 50

An SCBA tag system provides accountability for personnel who are __________.
  On duty
  Operating inside the hot zone
  Wearing breathing apparatus
  Inside the incident perimeter

Question 10 of 50

Which statement about wired telegraph circuit boxes is correct?
  Their use is increasing in many areas
  They are difficult for hearing-impaired people to use
  They are less likely to be a source of malicious false alarms than other alerting systems
  They report only the location from which the alarm is sent

Question 11 of 50

What is the primary function of a repeater?
  Retransmit messages on multiple frequencies
  Increase the range of radio systems
  Add private line capabilities
  Provide a back-up transmitter

Question 12 of 50

Anything that may disrupt or damage the communication process is __________.
  Feedback
  Interference
  Noise
  Semantics

Question 13 of 50

What is the term for a roll-call of all personnel assigned to an incident?
  Resource status check
  Situation status report
  Personnel accountability report
  Personnel welfare check

Question 14 of 50

What is the volume range delivered from a 1-3/4" (45 mm) line?
  40 to 175 gpm (150 to 665 L/min)
  60 to 175 gpm (230 to 665 L/min)
  40 to 125 gpm (150 to 475 L/min)
  60 to 150 gpm (230 to 570 L/min)

Question 15 of 50

A 1-3/4" (45 mm) line is suitable for all of these situations EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
  When quick attack is needed
  Fire involving one to three rooms
  When manpower is limited
  When extra reach is required

Question 16 of 50

For which situation is a solid stream nozzle best suited?
  Backup interior attack hoseline
  Interior attack
  Exterior attack
  Exposure protection

Question 17 of 50

How should a hot overhead gas layer be cooled?
  Paint the ceiling with a straight/solid stream
  Discharge short bursts of a fog pattern into the gas layer
  Steady discharge of a fog stream upward
  Pencil the layer with a straight/solid stream

Question 18 of 50

What is the fourth of the Ten Standard Fire Fighting Orders?
  Don't go in if there's only one way out
  Establish trigger points and make them known
  Determine the objectives and devise a plan
  Identify safety zones and escape routes and make them known

Question 19 of 50

What does the C in LCES stand for?
  Command
  Caution
  Control
  Communication

Question 20 of 50

Which is an example of secondary damage?
  Extension to exposures
  Fire extension through void spaces
  Smoke damage
  Damage caused by forcible entry

Question 21 of 50

What is the best way to carry a salvage cover folded for a two-firefighter spread?
  Cradled on both forearms, open edges against the chest
  Cradled on both forearms, open edges away from the chest
  On the shoulder with the open edges next to the neck
  On the shoulder with the open edges away from the neck

Question 22 of 50

Cornices, door and window casings, and insulating materials are examples of __________.
  Salvage problems
  Typical avenues of fire extension
  Common locations of concealed fire
  Areas particularly susceptible to water damage

Question 23 of 50

Which item is best overhauled outside the structure?
  Books/documents
  Appliances
  Clothing
  Mattresses

Question 24 of 50

Which is the most probable indication of accelerant use?
  Reduction of flames when water is applied
  Multiple points of origin
  Several rekindles in the same area
  Burnt blankets and rags

Question 25 of 50

Which component of the fire tetrahedron usually provides the best indicators of fire cause?
  Chemical chain reaction
  Oxidizing agent
  Heat source
  Fuel

Question 26 of 50

When should firefighters collect evidence?
  On any fire of suspect origin
  Before beginning overhaul operations
  Only when necessary in order to preserve it
  As early as possible in the incident

Question 27 of 50

To protect evidence at the scene of a structure fire, the security perimeter should extend __________.
  Around the perimeter of the structure
  Around the structure and the immediate surroundings
  A radius of 1.5 times the distance of the farthest piece of evidence found
  Beyond the farthest piece of evidence found outside the structure

Question 28 of 50

Who publishes the Threat and Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (THIRA)?
  United States Fire Administration (USFA)
  Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
  National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
  Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

Question 29 of 50

How does a model code become law?
  It must be formally adopted by the state or local governing body
  It must be written by an authorized regulatory agency
  It must be approved by both houses of congress and signed by the president
  Suit must be brought referencing the standard as representing a reasonable and prudent standard

Question 30 of 50

What is the second leading cause of fatalities in residential fires?
  Juvenile firesetting
  Wiring/electrical
  Smoking
  Heating equipment

Question 31 of 50

Which category of juvenile firesetter is predominantly teen-aged?
  Pathological/emotionally disturbed
  Delinquent/criminal
  Troubled/crisis
  Curiosity/experimental

Question 32 of 50

What was a common application for cast iron in building construction?
  Fasteners
  Window sash
  Tie rods
  Exterior facades

Question 33 of 50

What is added to concrete to make reinforced concrete?
  Steel bars or mesh
  Corrosion inhibiting admixture
  High-adhesion admixture
  Calcium carbonate

Question 34 of 50

Prior to 1960, what was the most common type of insulation?
  Asbestos
  Cellulose
  Mineral wool
  Cotton

Question 35 of 50

What is an advantage of noncombustible construction?
  Walls are readily breached for emergency escape and rescue
  It is the most fire resistive construction type
  Steel components are coated with protective insulation
  Structural materials will not add to the spread of fire

Question 36 of 50

In general, when exposed to fire, which construction type resists structural collapse the best?
  Heavy timber
  Truss
  Pre-World War II construction
  All-metal

Question 37 of 50

What is heat?
  Kinetic energy in the form of vibrating molecules
  A product of pyrolysis
  Temperature increase resulting in fuel decomposition
  The energy which produces oxidation

Question 38 of 50

What is the primary toxic effect of hydrogen cyanide?
  Simple asphyxiant
  Chemical asphyxiant
  Neurotoxin
  Cardiac irritant

Question 39 of 50

Which gas is a common product of combustion?
  Anhydrous ammonia
  Formaldehyde
  Acrolein
  Hydrogen sulfide

Question 40 of 50

What is the primary toxic effect of carbon dioxide?
  Disrupts cellular metabolism
  Displaces oxygen from the air
  Blocks oxygen from bonding with hemoglobin
  Blocks transfer of gases across alveolar membrane

Question 41 of 50

Spontaneous ignition of a wad of linseed oil-soaked rags is caused by which form of heat energy?
  Organic
  Chemical
  Physical
  Latent

Question 42 of 50

Dealing with an unventilated compartment fire is particularly risky because of the potential for __________.
  Spread to exposures
  Flameover/rollover
  Undetectable toxic gasses
  Backdraft

Question 43 of 50

Fighting fire with water is an example of which method of extinguishment?
  Oxygen exclusion
  Neutralizing the catalyst
  Reducing temperature
  Chemical flame inhibition

Question 44 of 50

Which is considered a supplemental or secondary form of eye protection?
  Safety goggles
  Safety glasses
  SCBA mask
  Helmet-mounted faceshield

Question 45 of 50

Structural firefighting boots must be equipped with __________.
  Pull-on design
  Zipper closure
  Rubber upper
  Water-resistant outer shell

Question 46 of 50

Undergarments of which material should be worn?
  Nylon
  Cotton
  Cotton/polyester
  Nomex

Question 47 of 50

According to NFPA standard, what is the term for a type of PPE cleaning that is done in a dedicated washing machine?
  Advanced
  Regular
  Routine
  Standard

Question 48 of 50

Which statement about air-purifying respirators is correct?
  They are useful in confined space operations
  They use a closed-circuit system
  They may be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres
  They offer protection for particulate matter only

Question 49 of 50

Which gas is responsible for the most fire-related deaths?
  Formaldehyde
  Hydrogen sulfide
  Sulfur dioxide
  Carbon monoxide

Question 50 of 50

Which statement about primary search is correct?
  Confine the search to those areas adjacent to the fire
  Rescuers should crawl or duck-walk even in light smoke and heat conditions
  The search team should consist of a minimum of two members
  The search should begin at the area where victims are most likely to be located

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