Pumping and Aerial Driver Operator 3rd Ed.
Audit Quiz
Question 1
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50
What is the NFPA Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus?
1728
1901
1002
1500
Question 2
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50
Which term refers to a pumper built on a pickup-truck chassis?
Micro-pumper
Mini-pumper
Attack pumper
Midi-pumper
Question 3
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50
During the air brake system test, for a straight-chassis vehicle with the brake pedal depressed, pressure loss should not exceed _____ over one minute.
10 psi (69 kPa)
1 psi (7 kPa)
5 psi (34 kPa)
3 psi (21 kPa)
Question 4
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50
The parking brake test is performed at which speed?
7 mph (11 km/h)
5 mph (8 km/h)
3 mph (5 km/h)
0 mph (0 km/h)
Question 5
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50
The paint and clear-coat of a new apparatus require special care for about __________ after it is received.
One week
One month
Six months
Three months
Question 6
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50
Which statement about NFPA requirements for replacing apparatus tires is correct?
Replacement is not required for tires in good condition
Replacement is required every 10 years
Replacement is required every 7 years
Replacement is required every 5 years
Question 7
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50
Which item should be checked while the engine is running?
Engine belts
Automatic transmission fluid
Power steering fluid
Crankcase oil
Question 8
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50
How many firefighters were killed while responding to or returning from an emergency call in 2010?
29
22
12
17
Question 9
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50
What is required by the NFPA when reloading large diameter hose onto an apparatus by driving the apparatus over (straddling) the hose?
The apparatus must drive forward during loading
The loader on the tailboard must wear a safety strap
Backing over the hose is permitted only when there is a safety observer who has radio contact with the driver
The loader on the ground must have radio contact with the driver
Question 10
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50
Which is a common result of prolonged idling of a diesel motor?
Increased oil temperature
Exhaust manifold damage
Increased carbon build-up
Fuel contamination of crankcase oil
Question 11
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50
As you begin to ascend a steep ramp, the rear of your apparatus scraps the pavement. Which point of contact did you fail to take into account?
Ground clearance
Angle of departure
Angle of approach
Ramp breakover angle
Question 12
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50
The effectiveness of audible warning devices __________.
Increases as vehicle speed increases
Decreases with more frequent changes of pitch
Decreases with simultaneous use of more than one device
Decreases as vehicle speed increases
Question 13
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50
During an emergency response, you are nearing an intersection where there is good visibility for all approaches. In front of you, all lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction you are traveling. What should you do?
Temporarily shut off your warning devices and wait until the signal changes
Use the apparatus public address speaker to direct the movement of vehicles
Cautiously move the apparatus into an oncoming traffic lane and proceed slowly through the intersection
Signal the cars in the lane directly ahead of you to pull forward into the intersection and off to the side
Question 14
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50
Several seconds have passed after starting the apparatus motor, and you notice that the oil pressure remains well below normal. What should you do?
Stop the motor immediately
Rev the motor to bring up the pressure
Run the motor at fast idle to bring up the pressure
Continue to idle the motor for another minute to see if the pressure rises
Question 15
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50
In general, what is the best attack pumper placement when there are no signs of fire?
Past the front of the building to permit a look at three sides of the structure
At the building's main access point
At the nearest hydrant or fire department connection
At the closest corner of the structure from the direction of approach
Question 16
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50
What do ornamental stars or large nuts and washers on the exterior walls of a building indicate?
Structural reinforcement rods
Lightweight construction
Type IV construction
Bowstring truss construction
Question 17
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50
Which is the best choice for a hydrant connection?
Two or more medium-diameter lines
Large diameter hard suction hose
Small diameter hard suction hose
Large diameter intake hose
Question 18
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50
Hoselines used in a mobile wildland attack should be __________.
A minimum of 150 feet (46 m) long
As short as possible
A minimum of 100 feet (30 m) long
A minimum of 50 feet (15 m) long
Question 19
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50
In which hazmat control zone is decontamination usually performed?
Restricted
Cold
Warm
Support
Question 20
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50
At which temperature does water convert from a liquid to a gas?
212 deg F (100 deg C)
100 deg F (38 deg C)
0 deg F (-18 deg C)
32 deg F (0 deg C)
Question 21
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50
Water's rate of heat absorption is directly affected by the __________ of the water.
Surface area
Volume
Pressure
Velocity
Question 22
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50
The pressure of a liquid in an open container is proportional to its __________.
Depth
Volume
Shape
Viscosity
Question 23
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50
All other things being equal, friction loss __________ with the length of a hose.
Varies directly
Varies proportionally
Varies inversely
Does not vary
Question 24
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50
Suddenly stopping the flow of water through a hose or pipe will result in __________.
Water hammer
Cavitation
Static pressure
Critical velocity
Question 25
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50
One of three key water consumption rates that engineers consider in water distribution system design is __________ consumption.
Peak hourly
Projected
Minimum daily
Level mean
Question 26
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50
Each of the following is one of the three basic types of fire streams EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
Solid
Broken
Fog
Straight
Question 27
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50
Which fog nozzle first deflects water off a circular stem in the center of the nozzle and then off the inside of the exterior barrel?
Combination
Periphery-deflected
Center-deflected
Impinging
Question 28
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50
Nozzle pressure for solid master stream is generally _____ psi.
80 (550 kPa)
75 (515 kPa)
100 (690 kPa)
60 (415 kPa)
Question 29
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50
Which is the simplified formula for calculating solid stream nozzle reaction?
Q/2
Q/3
1.5 x NP
NP/2Q
Question 30
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50
Discharge from a 1-3/4" (45 mm) solid stream nozzle operating at 50 psi (350 kPa) is _____ gpm.
670 (2515 L/min)
645 (2425 L/min)
615 (2330 L/min)
590 (2235 L/min)
Question 31
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50
Total pressure loss from 2-1/2" hoseline 350 feet in length with a 1" solid stream nozzle operating at 50 psi is _____ psi.
31
18
13
9
Question 32
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50
Two 1-1/2" lines, each flowing 100 gpm, and each 150 feet in length, are wyed off of a 2-1/2" supply line that is 250 feet in length. What is the total pressure loss in psi?
61
56
40
72
Question 33
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50
What is the correct pump discharge pressure in psi for a 2-1/2" attack line, 150 feet long, discharging 250 gpm through a standard fog nozzle?
119
144
127
135
Question 34
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50
A pumper is supplying two attack lines, both using standard fog nozzles. Line 1 is 600 feet of 1-1/2" hose, discharging 25 gpm from 100 feet below the engine. Line 2 is 1-1/2" hose, 650 feet long, discharging 25 gpm from 60 feet below the engine. What is the correct pump discharge pressure in psi?
90
60
80
70
Question 35
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50
What is the friction loss coefficient for 1" booster hose?
200
275
150
250
Question 36
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50
What is the friction loss coefficient for 3-1/2" hose?
0.67
0.34
0.8
0.2
Question 37
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50
What is the friction loss coefficient for 38 mm hose?
38
24.6
47
53.5
Question 38
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50
What is pressure loss caused by hose lining, couplings, kinks, etc?
Friction loss
Back pressure
Dynamic loss
Residual pressure
Question 39
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50
As a general rule of thumb, friction loss for a master stream appliance is _____ psi.
10 (70 kPa)
25 (175 kPa)
20 (140 kPa)
15 (105 kPa)
Question 40
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50
Elevation pressure loss for a hoseline discharging 80 feet (24 m) above the pump is _____ psi.
30 (200 kPa)
35 (240 kPa)
20 (140 kPa)
40 (275 kPa)
Question 41
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50
What does a flowmeter indicate?
Pressure at the nozzle
Pressure at the pump discharge
Amount of water being discharged
Friction loss between the discharge and the nozzle
Question 42
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50
How should a flowmeter be used to adjust pump throttle while pumping into a supply line in a relay operation?
Increase pump throttle until minimum residual pressure plus 10 psi (70 kPa) is reached
Increase pump speed until the flowmeter reading begins to fluctuate, then reduce pump speed slightly
Increase pump throttle until discharge volume no longer increases
Increase pump pressure to provide an intake pressure of 50 psi (350 kPa) at the receiving pumper
Question 43
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50
What is the correct procedure to estimate friction loss using the gpm flowing method for 100 feet of 2-1/2" hose?
Multiply the flow in gpm by .10
Divide the flow in gpm by 100, and square it
Find the square root of the flow in gpm
Subtract 10 from the first two digits of the flow in gpm
Question 44
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50
With a positive displacement pump, the amount of fluid pumped __________.
Varies at a fixed pump speed
Is constant at a given pump speed
Is not related to pump speed
Increases or decreased with demand
Question 45
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50
Which pump type is non-positive displacement?
Rotary gear
Rotary vane
Centrifugal
Piston
Question 46
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50
Because there is no mechanical obstruction between the intake and discharge sides of a centrifugal pump, __________.
The pump is less susceptible to damage from water hammer
It can draft from greater heights than other pump types
Suction and discharges hoses can be interchanged without affecting operation
Question 47
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50
How does a multistage centrifugal pump differ from a single-stage centrifugal pump?
In the number of impellers
In the maximum capacity
In the number of pump housings
In the use of double suction impellers
Question 48
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50
PTO's used on apparatus with automatic transmissions are driven by __________.
The flywheel
Hydraulic fluid pressure
A fluid coupling
The drive shaft
Question 49
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50
NFPA standards require that for a pumper with a rated capacity of 500 gpm (2000 L/min) or less, the piping supplying the pump from the tank must be able to flow a minimum of _____ gpm.
250 (1000 L/min)
450 (1700 L/min)
350 (1300 L/min)
300 (1100 L/min)
Question 50
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50
Pumpers with a rated capacity of 750 gpm (3000 L/min) or greater must be plumbed with a minimum of _____ 2-1/2" (65 mm) discharge(s).