Pumping and Aerial Driver Operator 3rd Ed.
Audit Quiz
Question 1
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50
What is the NFPA Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus?
1500
1901
1002
1728
Question 2
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50
Which term refers to a pumper built on a pickup-truck chassis?
Micro-pumper
Midi-pumper
Mini-pumper
Attack pumper
Question 3
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50
During the air brake system test, for a straight-chassis vehicle with the brake pedal depressed, pressure loss should not exceed _____ over one minute.
3 psi (21 kPa)
1 psi (7 kPa)
10 psi (69 kPa)
5 psi (34 kPa)
Question 4
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50
The parking brake test is performed at which speed?
7 mph (11 km/h)
3 mph (5 km/h)
0 mph (0 km/h)
5 mph (8 km/h)
Question 5
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50
The paint and clear-coat of a new apparatus require special care for about __________ after it is received.
Three months
Six months
One month
One week
Question 6
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50
Which statement about NFPA requirements for replacing apparatus tires is correct?
Replacement is required every 5 years
Replacement is not required for tires in good condition
Replacement is required every 7 years
Replacement is required every 10 years
Question 7
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50
Which item should be checked while the engine is running?
Automatic transmission fluid
Power steering fluid
Engine belts
Crankcase oil
Question 8
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50
How many firefighters were killed while responding to or returning from an emergency call in 2010?
12
22
29
17
Question 9
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50
What is required by the NFPA when reloading large diameter hose onto an apparatus by driving the apparatus over (straddling) the hose?
The apparatus must drive forward during loading
The loader on the tailboard must wear a safety strap
Backing over the hose is permitted only when there is a safety observer who has radio contact with the driver
The loader on the ground must have radio contact with the driver
Question 10
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50
Which is a common result of prolonged idling of a diesel motor?
Increased carbon build-up
Fuel contamination of crankcase oil
Increased oil temperature
Exhaust manifold damage
Question 11
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50
As you begin to ascend a steep ramp, the rear of your apparatus scraps the pavement. Which point of contact did you fail to take into account?
Angle of departure
Ground clearance
Angle of approach
Ramp breakover angle
Question 12
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50
The effectiveness of audible warning devices __________.
Increases as vehicle speed increases
Decreases as vehicle speed increases
Decreases with simultaneous use of more than one device
Decreases with more frequent changes of pitch
Question 13
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50
During an emergency response, you are nearing an intersection where there is good visibility for all approaches. In front of you, all lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction you are traveling. What should you do?
Cautiously move the apparatus into an oncoming traffic lane and proceed slowly through the intersection
Temporarily shut off your warning devices and wait until the signal changes
Use the apparatus public address speaker to direct the movement of vehicles
Signal the cars in the lane directly ahead of you to pull forward into the intersection and off to the side
Question 14
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50
Several seconds have passed after starting the apparatus motor, and you notice that the oil pressure remains well below normal. What should you do?
Stop the motor immediately
Run the motor at fast idle to bring up the pressure
Rev the motor to bring up the pressure
Continue to idle the motor for another minute to see if the pressure rises
Question 15
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50
In general, what is the best attack pumper placement when there are no signs of fire?
Past the front of the building to permit a look at three sides of the structure
At the building's main access point
At the closest corner of the structure from the direction of approach
At the nearest hydrant or fire department connection
Question 16
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50
What do ornamental stars or large nuts and washers on the exterior walls of a building indicate?
Type IV construction
Lightweight construction
Bowstring truss construction
Structural reinforcement rods
Question 17
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50
Which is the best choice for a hydrant connection?
Two or more medium-diameter lines
Large diameter intake hose
Large diameter hard suction hose
Small diameter hard suction hose
Question 18
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50
Hoselines used in a mobile wildland attack should be __________.
A minimum of 150 feet (46 m) long
A minimum of 50 feet (15 m) long
As short as possible
A minimum of 100 feet (30 m) long
Question 19
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50
In which hazmat control zone is decontamination usually performed?
Restricted
Support
Cold
Warm
Question 20
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50
At which temperature does water convert from a liquid to a gas?
212 deg F (100 deg C)
0 deg F (-18 deg C)
100 deg F (38 deg C)
32 deg F (0 deg C)
Question 21
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50
Water's rate of heat absorption is directly affected by the __________ of the water.
Surface area
Volume
Velocity
Pressure
Question 22
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50
The pressure of a liquid in an open container is proportional to its __________.
Shape
Viscosity
Volume
Depth
Question 23
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50
All other things being equal, friction loss __________ with the length of a hose.
Varies directly
Does not vary
Varies proportionally
Varies inversely
Question 24
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50
Suddenly stopping the flow of water through a hose or pipe will result in __________.
Water hammer
Static pressure
Cavitation
Critical velocity
Question 25
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50
One of three key water consumption rates that engineers consider in water distribution system design is __________ consumption.
Peak hourly
Minimum daily
Projected
Level mean
Question 26
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50
Each of the following is one of the three basic types of fire streams EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
Straight
Solid
Broken
Fog
Question 27
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50
Which fog nozzle first deflects water off a circular stem in the center of the nozzle and then off the inside of the exterior barrel?
Center-deflected
Impinging
Combination
Periphery-deflected
Question 28
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50
Nozzle pressure for solid master stream is generally _____ psi.
60 (415 kPa)
80 (550 kPa)
100 (690 kPa)
75 (515 kPa)
Question 29
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50
Which is the simplified formula for calculating solid stream nozzle reaction?
1.5 x NP
Q/3
Q/2
NP/2Q
Question 30
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50
Discharge from a 1-3/4" (45 mm) solid stream nozzle operating at 50 psi (350 kPa) is _____ gpm.
615 (2330 L/min)
670 (2515 L/min)
645 (2425 L/min)
590 (2235 L/min)
Question 31
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50
Total pressure loss from 2-1/2" hoseline 350 feet in length with a 1" solid stream nozzle operating at 50 psi is _____ psi.
18
13
31
9
Question 32
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50
Two 1-1/2" lines, each flowing 100 gpm, and each 150 feet in length, are wyed off of a 2-1/2" supply line that is 250 feet in length. What is the total pressure loss in psi?
61
56
72
40
Question 33
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50
What is the correct pump discharge pressure in psi for a 2-1/2" attack line, 150 feet long, discharging 250 gpm through a standard fog nozzle?
144
119
135
127
Question 34
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50
A pumper is supplying two attack lines, both using standard fog nozzles. Line 1 is 600 feet of 1-1/2" hose, discharging 25 gpm from 100 feet below the engine. Line 2 is 1-1/2" hose, 650 feet long, discharging 25 gpm from 60 feet below the engine. What is the correct pump discharge pressure in psi?
80
60
70
90
Question 35
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50
What is the friction loss coefficient for 1" booster hose?
150
275
200
250
Question 36
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50
What is the friction loss coefficient for 3-1/2" hose?
0.8
0.67
0.34
0.2
Question 37
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50
What is the friction loss coefficient for 38 mm hose?
47
24.6
38
53.5
Question 38
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50
What is pressure loss caused by hose lining, couplings, kinks, etc?
Friction loss
Residual pressure
Back pressure
Dynamic loss
Question 39
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50
As a general rule of thumb, friction loss for a master stream appliance is _____ psi.
20 (140 kPa)
10 (70 kPa)
15 (105 kPa)
25 (175 kPa)
Question 40
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50
Elevation pressure loss for a hoseline discharging 80 feet (24 m) above the pump is _____ psi.
20 (140 kPa)
30 (200 kPa)
35 (240 kPa)
40 (275 kPa)
Question 41
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50
What does a flowmeter indicate?
Friction loss between the discharge and the nozzle
Pressure at the pump discharge
Amount of water being discharged
Pressure at the nozzle
Question 42
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50
How should a flowmeter be used to adjust pump throttle while pumping into a supply line in a relay operation?
Increase pump throttle until discharge volume no longer increases
Increase pump pressure to provide an intake pressure of 50 psi (350 kPa) at the receiving pumper
Increase pump speed until the flowmeter reading begins to fluctuate, then reduce pump speed slightly
Increase pump throttle until minimum residual pressure plus 10 psi (70 kPa) is reached
Question 43
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50
What is the correct procedure to estimate friction loss using the gpm flowing method for 100 feet of 2-1/2" hose?
Subtract 10 from the first two digits of the flow in gpm
Find the square root of the flow in gpm
Multiply the flow in gpm by .10
Divide the flow in gpm by 100, and square it
Question 44
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50
With a positive displacement pump, the amount of fluid pumped __________.
Is constant at a given pump speed
Varies at a fixed pump speed
Increases or decreased with demand
Is not related to pump speed
Question 45
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50
Which pump type is non-positive displacement?
Piston
Rotary gear
Rotary vane
Centrifugal
Question 46
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50
Because there is no mechanical obstruction between the intake and discharge sides of a centrifugal pump, __________.
Suction and discharges hoses can be interchanged without affecting operation
The pump is less susceptible to damage from water hammer
It can draft from greater heights than other pump types
Question 47
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50
How does a multistage centrifugal pump differ from a single-stage centrifugal pump?
In the maximum capacity
In the number of pump housings
In the number of impellers
In the use of double suction impellers
Question 48
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50
PTO's used on apparatus with automatic transmissions are driven by __________.
Hydraulic fluid pressure
The flywheel
The drive shaft
A fluid coupling
Question 49
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50
NFPA standards require that for a pumper with a rated capacity of 500 gpm (2000 L/min) or less, the piping supplying the pump from the tank must be able to flow a minimum of _____ gpm.
300 (1100 L/min)
250 (1000 L/min)
350 (1300 L/min)
450 (1700 L/min)
Question 50
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50
Pumpers with a rated capacity of 750 gpm (3000 L/min) or greater must be plumbed with a minimum of _____ 2-1/2" (65 mm) discharge(s).